Hello, I love this community. I have a question that I feel I should know the answer to, as an English major, but I don't! I am reading through some microfilm right now of articles/satires written in the 1640s. Many letters are interchanged from the way we see them today (i.e. instead of a 'u', there is a 'v', or instead of an 's' there is an 'f'.)
Does anyone know why this was? Did they just write letters differently (the actual form) or was this a borrow-over from earlier English or another language? Did they not have as many letters as we have today? I'm just curious.