Hi. I’ve just joined this comm, but I’ve been checking it out for a while. I’ve found so many helpful things, so thanks. :) But I do have a question that has been bugging me recently:
I have a fantasy semi-modern setting. There are royal families whose ruling powers are passed down through primogeniture. But I was wondering -- would it be reasonable for the right to rule to be passed to the first possible heir to have a child?
This explanation/question seems kind of confusing (even to me, and I know what I’m trying to say, lol), so I’ll try to give an example.
Character H has a son, R, with her husband the king, and as soon as character C realizes this, he kills off the ruling king and marries H (power marriages FTW). R disappears, and H and C have a son, A. So A is naturally the heir to the throne. Then, R returns. He and A are both equally entitled to rule. So I was thinking that it can be decided that whichever can produce an heir first gets the right to rule, seeing as it's official that they can carry on the family line.
I was wondering if this is a reasonable idea, or if it’s… well, not. :)
I’ve looked up primogeniture on Wikipedia, but couldn’t find what exactly I was looking for. Any help at all is greatly appreciated, thank you in advance!